Medicine College
Answers
Answer 1
The type of training which have doctors who specialize in palliative care had that distinguishes them from other doctors simply is: Training to help patients and their families cope with the reality of the impending death.
The correct answer choice is option c.
What is meant by palliative care?
Palliative care simply refers to the care given to individuals and families suffering from life-threatening health conditions. The healthcare workers or professionals trained for this speciality are often well trained in order to be able to properly discharge their duties regardless of other odds in the patients.
In conclusion, we can now confirm from the explanation given above that palliative care is a care that should be given by committed doctors and nurses.
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Related Questions
the nurse witnesses an automobile accident and provides care at the scene of the accident to an open wound on a young child. the family is extremely grateful and insists that the nurse accept monetary compensation for the care provided to the child. because of the family's insistence, the nurse accepts the compensation to avoid offending the family. the child develops an infection and sepsis and is hospitalized. the family files suit against the nurse who provided care to the child at the scene of the accident. the nurse understands that which is accurate regarding immunity from this suit?
Answers
The nurse will be protected by the Good Samaritan legislation, which is correct in terms of immunity from this lawsuit.
What records ought to be kept in the patient file?
They ought to contain: All pertinent clinical results. A record of the choices made, the acts approved, and the names of the individuals responsible. A list of the details provided to patients.A record of any prescription medications or other research or medical procedures.
What details need to include on a patient care report?
You must compile details on the patient's medical background, present state, and any therapies that have been given in order to prepare a patient care report. Additionally, you must record the patient's vital signs and symptoms.
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To help protect patients, EMS agencies are required to have __________. Select one:
A. public forums with their medical director
B. online access to patient records
C. a privacy officer to answer questions
D. an anonymous reporting system
Answers
EMS organizations must have a privacy officer available to answer queries in order to protect patients.
Meaning of patients
Patient is a noun that refers to a person who is receiving or has received medical attention.
What makes someone a patient?
Patient is a translation of the Latin word "patiens," which means to suffer or endure. In this language, the patient is truly passive, experiencing the required suffering and bearing with the outside expert's actions.
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Lipophilic hormones are transported in blood ________ and bind to receptors located ________.
A) dissolved in the plasma : on the plasma membrane of the target cell
B) dissolved in the plasma : inside the target cell
C) bound to carrier proteins : on the plasma membrane of the target cell
D) bound to carrier proteins : inside the target cell
E) inside red blood cells : inside the target cell
Answers
The ideal response is A) dissolved in the plasma: on the target cell's plasma membrane.
Lipophilic hormones pass through the cell membrane and interact with receptors, usually found in the nucleus, to form bonds. The receptor for such hormone are usually exposed on the outer side of the cell. This modifies the receptor so that it can attach to DNA at a particular site (called the hormone response element). Lipid-soluble hormones enter the target cell and diffuse through the plasma membrane where they bind to a receptor protein. Lipophilic hormones do not dissolve in blood plasma and thus require a carrier protein to help them reach the target cell.
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which organ of the body is responsible for the oxidation of alcohol into simpler products?
Answers
Most of the ethanol in the body is broken down in the liver by an enzyme called alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH), which transforms ethanol into a toxic compound called acetaldehyde (CH3CHO), a known carcinogen.
vagal maneuvers are unsuccessful his vital signs are heart rate 178 beats what medication is appropriate for the patient
Answers
Two types of medications are most commonly used to slow a racing heart are: Beta-blockers and Calcium channel blockers.
What are vagal maneuvers?
Vagal maneuvers are physical actions that make your vagus nerve act on your heart’s natural pacemaker. It will do so by slowing down its electrical impulses. Our vagus nerve plays a very important role and controls several things in your body which also include heart rate.
Are Vagal Maneuvers safe and effective?
Vagal maneuvers are popular techniques used to treat and diagnose different arrhythmias. Vagal maneuvers are proven to be safe and easily performed techniques mostly done first to differentiate SVT from ventricular tachycardias (VT) or terminate incidents of stable supraventricular tachycardia.
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what is a consequence resulting from inadequate nutrient intake during the critical phases of growth of infancy and the toddler years?
Answers
Poor infant and child nutrition may cause a weakened immune system and poor health.
What are the consequences of poor nutrition?
Nutrition most of the studies agree that diet has a big collision on health, to the extent of deciding whether a person will get chronic diseases like cancer, cardiovascular state nutrition (heart disease and stroke being among the most usual), diabetes, osteoporosis, dental issues, and obesity.
Poor nutritional status in general is related to an increased prevalence of anemia, pregnancy and carriage problems, and increased rates of intrauterine growth.
So we can conclude that Diseases can affect all sides of nutritional status i.e. hunger, food consumption, and diet quality.
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For which of the following types of CVD does using illicit drugs, such as cocaine, put you at higher risk?
Multiple select question.
a. healthy heartbeat
b. sudden cardiac death
c. stroke
d. heart attack
e. atherosclerosis
Answers
The following types of CVD does using illicit drugs, such as cocaine, put you at higher risk - sudden cardiac death, heart attack, stroke option -b, c, and d are correct options.
What is CVD?
A disease of the heart or blood vessels is referred to as having cardiovascular disease (CVD) in general. There can be a reduction in blood flow to the body, brain, or heart as a result of: accumulation of fatty deposits inside an artery that causes a blood clot (thrombosis), which causes the artery to harden and narrow (atherosclerosis).
Unhealthy diet, lack of exercise, tobacco use, and problematic alcohol use are the most significant behavioral risk factors for heart disease and stroke.
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which of the following is not used to sanitize? iodine alcohol betadine dry heat
Answers
Dry heat is not used to sanitize.Sanitizing is the process of reducing the amount of germs, bacteria, and other microorganisms on a surface.
Which of the subsequent is not a sanitising method?Sanitizing does not employ dry heat. Reducing the number of germs, bacteria, and other microorganisms on a surface is the process of sanitising. It reduces the number of germs to a safe level but does not totally eradicate them.Food preparation, medical equipment, and other items that could be in contact with people are frequently sanitised. Using heat or chemical treatments to sanitise is common.Alcohol, bleach, phenolic chemicals, and iodine are examples of typical sanitising agents. Certain kinds of germs and bacteria can be killed with both alcohol and bleach.Phenolics can be hazardous to humans but are also excellent at killing a variety of bacteria. Medical equipment is frequently sterilised using iodine, which is safe for people.Since dry heat only dries off bacteria rather than really killing them, it cannot be utilised to sanitise. This is why it's used for sterilisation rather than sanitization, which is the total eradication of all germs.
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in checkpoint inhibition therapy, which of the following is a protein targeted by therapeutic monoclonal antibodies?
Answers
LAG-3 is a protein targeted by therapeutic monoclonal antibodies during checkpoint inhibition therapy.
What is the purpose of checkpoint inhibition therapy?
Immune checkpoint inhibitors are immunotherapy drugs that work by preventing checkpoint proteins from binding to their partner proteins. This prevents the "off" signal from being sent, allowing the T cells to kill cancer cells.
LAG-3 is a checkpoint protein found on some immune cells that acts as a "off switch" to help keep the immune system in check. Relatlimab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to LAG-3 and inhibits its function. This can aid in the body's immune response to cancer cells.
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a prenatal client diagnosed with anemia has come to the clinic. after reviewing the client's health record, the nurse notes that the laboratory values indicate low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. which problem do the data best support?
Answers
If a prenatal client diagnosed with anemia has come to the clinic and after reviewing the client's health record, the nurse notes that the laboratory values indicate low hemoglobin and hematocrit level, then data support 4. a high risk for infection.
Why do a low hemoglobin and hematocrit level support a high risk for infection?
A low hemoglobin and hematocrit level support a high risk for infection because they are cells that transport oxygen into the body which is required to carry out all metabolic functions.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are associated with disease infection due to the lack of cells to transport oxygen which is required to produce energy and metabolic activities.
Complete question:
A prenatal client diagnosed with anemia has come to the clinic. After reviewing the clients health record, the nurse notes that the laboratory values indicate a low hemoglobin and hematocrit level. Which of the following problems do the data best support? 1. Anxiety 2. Low self-esteem 3. Cerebrovascular accident 4. High risk for infection.
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the emt believes that a patient is mildly hypoxic based on findings from the primary assessment. which other sign could the emt use to confirm his suspicion of mild hypoxia?
Answers
The EMT believes that a patient is mildly hypoxic based on findings from primary assessment and other sign that EMT could use to confirm his suspicion of mild hypoxia is : restlessness.
What happens in mild hypoxia?
Any condition that reduces amount of oxygen in the blood or restricts blood flow can cause hypoxia. People with heart or lung diseases such as COPD, emphysema or asthma, are at increased risk for hypoxia.
The most important thing to treat mild hypoxia is is to get more oxygen into your body. You can receive it through a small plug in your nose or through a mask that covers your nose and mouth.
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a client presents to the clinic for an appointment for a mammogram. which guidance would the nurse provide the client in preparation for the test
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If a client presents to the clinic for an appointment for a mammogram, then the guidance that the nurse would provide the client in preparation for the test is that during this medical procedure breasts must be compressed firmly in the two plates.
What is a mammogram?
A mammogram can be defined as a test to assess the presence of breast cancer or any other abnormality which must be detected in early stages in order to provide suitable treatment.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that a mammogram is aimed at detecting any abnormality in the breasts.
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a nurse is caring for a patient who underwent total gastrectomy for gastric cancer. the patient reports dizziness, light-headedness, palpitations, excessive sweating, and confusion 2 hours after eating food. which complication of total gastrectomy would the nurse suspect as the cause of the patient' s symptoms?
Answers
The cause of the patient's symptoms is an excessive insulin release.
Pernicious anemia develops in 50% of people whose stomachs were removed due to gastric cancer. In the end, intrinsic factor, which is secreted by parietal cells on the stomach wall, which is necessary for the production of cobalamin, is deficient, which results in pernicious anemia. This means that individuals who have a total gastrectomy require external administration of cobalamin. Intramuscular injection of cyanocobalamin has been the primary technique of treating cobalamin insufficiency up to this point, but it has limitations such discomfort from having to go to a hospital for an injection and expensive costs.
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Which of the following statements regarding the parasternal window is incorrect?
A. The patient should be lying flat on the bed to enable optimal cardiac imaging.
B. The transducer is placed in the 3rd to 5th intercostal space, to the anatomic left of the sternum.
C. The probe indicator should appear on the right of the ultrasound screen, from a viewer's perspective, in a cardiac-imaging preset mode.
D. The probe indicator should point to the patient's anatomic right shoulder during parasternal long-axis window acquisition.
E. The parasternal long-axis window is oriented along the long axis of the heart.
Answers
In order to provide the best cardiac imaging, the patient should be flat on the bed, which is inappropriate in terms of the parasternal window.
The parasternal window enables superior imaging of the tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonic valve, and right ventricular outflow tract, among other anterior cardiac organs. Additionally, it enables quick evaluation of the pericardium and the left ventricle in short axis. This view obscures the right atrium (RA). The left atrium (LA), aorta, and RVOT should each occupy about one-third of the right side of the picture. You may see the chordae of the mitral valve (you are not yet at the level of the papillary muscle) and the basal segments of the aorta in parasternal short axis view. In today's healthcare, it is important for the cardiovascular diseases to be treated based on the images taken by the parasternal window.
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the nurse has provided discharge instructions to a client with an application of a halo device. the nurse determines that the client needs further teaching if which statement is made?
Answers
The nurse determines that the client with a halo device needs further teaching with the statement made "I will drive only during the daytime." Thus, the correct option is 2.
What is a Halo device?
A halo device or a halo-vest is a brace which is used to immobilize and protect the cervical spine and neck after a surgery or an accident. The halo device is a ring which surrounds the head of a person and is attached through pins to the outer portion of the skull of the patient. However, some Halo devices are pinless however they are only used in certain situations.
The halo device alters the balance of body and can also cause fatigue because of weight. The clients should cleanse the skin on a daily basis under the vest to protect the skin from ulceration and should also avoid the use of powders or lotions on the body. The client should also have food cut into small pieces to facilitate easy chewing and use a straw for drinking purpose. Pin care is done as instructed by the nurse. The client cannot drive after halo device insertion at all because the device impairs range of vision.
Therefore, the correct option is 2.
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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:
The nurse has provided discharge instructions to a client with an application of a halo device. the nurse determines that the client needs further teaching if which statement is made?
1. "I will use a straw for drinking"
2. "I will drive only during the daytime"
3. "I will be careful because the device alter balance"
4. "I will wash the skin daily under the lamb's wool liner of the vest"
in the virginia pharmacy board case, the government claimed that the prohibited pharmacist advertising was either false, misleading, or that they proposed illegal transactions.
Answers
True, in the virginia pharmacy board case, the government claimed that the prohibited pharmacist advertising was either false, misleading, or that they proposed illegal transactions.
What is virginia pharmacy board case?
The Virginia Citizens Consumer Council, speaking for consumers of prescription drugs, challenged a Virginia regulation that said it was improper for certified pharmacists to promote the costs of their prescription medications. The Virginia State Board of Pharmacy requested review from the Supreme Court after a three-judge District Court panel's adverse decision was appealed.
The Supreme Court ruled, 7-1, that both willing speakers and willing listeners are equally protected by the First Amendment. The Court stated that free speech rights apply to commercial communication just like they do to noncommercial speech in situations like price advertising.
425 U.S. 748, Consumer Council (1976) The First Amendment aims to safeguard both listeners and speakers of protected speech.
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upon entering the residence of a 10-month-old boy, the mother tells you that her son would not wake up from his nap. you determine unresponsiveness, open the infant's airway, and determine that he is not breathing. you should:
Answers
After determining unresponsiveness from the 10-month-old boy, I would tilt the baby's head back and open his airway by pulling the tongue forward. If he is not breathing then I would,
1. Begin CPR immediately.
2. Call 911 and ask for an ambulance.
3. Check for signs of a pulse and continue with CPR if absent.
4. Administer rescue breaths if the infant is not breathing.
What do you mean by CPR?
CPR basically stands for cardiopulmonary resuscitation. It is an emergency procedure that combines chest compressions, often with artificial ventilation, to maintain the circulation of oxygenated blood and to try to restore a normal heartbeat and breathing in a person who is in cardiac arrest.
Define the term Airway.
Airway is the system that provides a passage for air to travel from the nose and mouth to the lungs, and for the release of carbon dioxide from the lungs. It consists of the nose, mouth, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles.
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Which of the following can be concluded based on the results of Dr. Finkel's study?
a. Income is a stronger predictor of martial satisfaction than either the number of arguments or life satisfaction.
b. As the number of arguments a couple has increases, their marital satisfaction increases as well, controlling for income but not life satisfaction.
c. The beta for the relationship between life satisfaction and marital satisfaction is significantly different than zero.
d. The relationship between life satisfaction and marital satisfaction has the weakest effect size of all of the results.
Answers
The following can be concluded based on the results of Dr. Finkel's study includes - The relationship between life satisfaction and marital satisfaction has the weakest effect size of all of the results option - d is correct answer.
Based on the findings of Dr. Finkel's research, what is the relationship between life satisfaction and marital satisfaction?
The weakest effect size of all the findings is found in the relationship between life satisfaction and marital satisfaction.
The way a person feels about his or her own marriage can be referred to as marital satisfaction. Understanding marital satisfaction has significant ramifications for researchers who study relationships as well as practical ramifications for married people and the professionals who work with them.
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the nurse is providing dietary instructions to a 68-year-old client who is at high risk for development of coronary heart disease (chd). which information should the nurse include?
Answers
If the nurse is providing dietary instructions to a 68-year-old client who is at high risk for the development of coronary heart disease (CHD), then the information that she/he should include is B) Increase intake of soluble fiber to 10 to 25 grams per day.
What is dietary fiber?
Dietary fiber can be defined as any fiber obtained from foods such as fruits and vegetables which may be helpful against cardiovascular diseases because they provide a medium to eliminate saturated fats during digestion.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that dietary fiber can help against coronary heart disease (CHD) when they are ingested in normal portions.
Complete question:
The nurse is providing dietary instructions to a 68-year-old client who is at high risk for development of coronary heart disease (CHD). Which information should the nurse include?
A) Limit dietary selection of cholesterol to 300 mg per day.
B) Increase intake of soluble fiber to 10 to 25 grams per day.
C) Decrease plant stanols and sterols to less than 2 grams/day.
D) Ensure saturated fat is less than 30% of total caloric intake.
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The actions of the internal obliques include __________.
a. compression of the abdomen to assist in forced inspiration
b. compression of the abdomen to assist in forced expiration
c. compression of the rib cage to assist in forced inspiration
d. compression of the rib cage to assist in forced expiration
Answers
compression of the abdomen to assist in forced expiration
Some drugs that combat depression work by ______. A) increasing the amount of serotonin in the brain. B) blocking dopamine receptors in the brain.
Answers
Some drugs that combat depression work by increasing the amount of acetylcholine in the brain. The correct option is D.
What is depression?
Depression is a common and dangerous medical condition that has a negative impact on your feelings, thoughts, and actions.
Depressive symptoms range from mild to severe. Depression can sometimes appear as annoyance or exasperation. Little problems appear to be big all of a sudden.
Acetylcholine reduces the normal corticocortical connection while increasing cortical sensitivity to external stimuli, resulting in increased focused attention.
Anxiety and depression symptoms, on the other hand, can be exacerbated by increases in ACh signaling.
Thus, the correct option is D.
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Your question seems incomplete, the missing options are:
A) increasing the amount of serotonin in the brain.
B) blocking dopamine receptors in the brain.
C) inhibiting the function of the medulla and the pons.
D) increasing the amount of acetylcholine in the brain.
drugs that stimulate the pathway provide powerful positive rewards that may eclipse the pleasures derived from other activities.
Answers
Drugs that activate the dopaminergic pathway offer strong positive benefits that may surpass the joys experienced from other activities.
What kind of substance increases pleasure and reduces pain?
Opiates are strong medicines that are used as narcotics. Opiates are substances such as heroin, morphine, and codeine. The enjoyment, pain alleviation, and respiratory suppression brought on by heroin use are its most notable side effects.
What is the name of the produced medicine that causes a certain class of brain receptors to become active?
A(n) agonist is a synthetic medication that stimulates a specific class of receptor in the brain. The raphe nuclei are a significant location where projections involving the neurotransmitter serotonin originate.
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the nurse reviews measures to prevent tick bites with a parent of a child with rocky mountain spotted fever. which statement by the parent indicates a need for further teaching?
Answers
The nurse reviews measures to prevent tick bites with a parent of a child with rocky mountain spotted fever therefore the statement by the parent which indicates a need for further teaching is "I will have my child wear dark colored clothing so the tick will not be attracted to the colors."
Who is a Nurse?
This is referred tom as a healthcare professional who specializes in taking care of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery is achieved in other to prevent various forms of complication.
Tick bites cause a red welt or itchy lesion to rise on the skin and it is a common belief that ticks are more visible and easier to detect on light clothing in comparison with dark clothing.
Since we were told that the nurse is reviews measures to prevent tick bites with a parent of a child, then light colored clothing is preferable so as to spot them after the area has been fumigated.
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if you’ve followed all of the procedures for properly cleaning up blood or bodily fluids, it’s not necessary to report the incident. t or f
Answers
False. It is important to report incidents involving the handling of blood or bodily fluids, even if proper cleaning procedures were followed, in order to ensure that proper protocols were followed and to prevent the potential spread of infections.
False. Even if proper procedures have been followed for cleaning up blood or bodily fluids, it is still necessary to report the incident.
Reporting incidents involving blood or bodily fluids is an essential part of maintaining workplace safety and preventing potential exposure to infectious agents or pathogens. Even if the cleaning procedures have been carried out according to protocols, reporting the incident ensures that appropriate documentation is in place, which can be valuable for tracking and investigating any potential exposure risks.
Reporting incidents allows employers, supervisors, and healthcare professionals to assess the situation, identify any gaps in procedures, and take necessary actions to prevent similar incidents in the future. Additionally, in healthcare or other high-risk environments, reporting incidents is often required by regulations and guidelines to ensure compliance with safety standards.
It's important to remember that blood and bodily fluids can carry infectious agents, such as viruses or bacteria, that may pose health risks to individuals who come into contact with them. Prompt reporting ensures that any necessary medical evaluations or follow-up can take place if there is a potential for exposure.
Overall, proper reporting of incidents involving blood or bodily fluids is a crucial step in maintaining a safe and healthy work environment, protecting individuals' health, and preventing the potential spread of infectious diseases.
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the nurse is told that a prenatal client is at risk for placental abruption. the nurse expects to note which risk factor documented in the client's record?
Answers
Nurses know that prenatal clients are at risk of experiencing placental abruption. Risk factors documented in the client's medical record are maternal hypertension and maternal trauma.
What is placental abruption?
Placental abruption is the detachment of the placenta from its normal implantation site in the uterus before birth and is one of the causes of bleeding in pregnant women in the third trimester associated with maternal and fetal death.
Risk factors for placental abruption are:
Maternal hypertension. Maternal trauma such as a fall or motor vehicle accident. Smoke. Alcohol consumptionInfection in the uterus during pregnancy (chorioamnionitis). Pregnant at an old age of over 40 years.
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you receive a prescription for metoclopramide 15 mg. the pharmacy has metoclopramide 5 mg/5 ml in stock. how many ml are needed per dose?
Answers
To calculate the correct dose of metoclopramide from a 5 mg/5 ml stock solution, you would need to divide the prescribed dose of 15 mg by the concentration of the stock solution, which is 5 mg/5 ml. This calculation would give you a result of 3 ml. Therefore, you would need to administer 3 ml of the 5 mg/5 ml metoclopramide solution per dose in order to achieve the prescribed dose of 15 mg.
a client has been instructed by the primary health care provider to alternate the use of hydrogen peroxide and glycerin eardrops to loosen an impacted accumulation of earwax. the nurse gives the client which directions to accomplish this daily procedure safely and independently?
Answers
The instructions given by the nurse, to perform this daily procedure safely and independently, are as follows:
Lie on your side with the affected ear facing up.Place 2-3 drops of hydrogen peroxide into the ear.Gently massage the area around the outer ear for a few seconds.Allow the hydrogen peroxide to sit in the ear for 10 minutes.Tilt your head to the side and use a bulb syringe to flush out the wax and the hydrogen peroxide.Place 2-3 drops of glycerin into the ear.Gently massage the area around the outer ear for a few seconds.Allow the glycerin to sit in the ear for 10 minutes.Tilt your head to the side and use a bulb syringe to flush out the wax and the glycerin.Repeat this process daily until the earwax has been removed.
The alternative use of hydrogen peroxide and glycerin to dislodge earwax buildup
Cerumen, also commonly known as earwax, is a slightly greasy liquid secretion produced by the sebaceous glands in the ear. It forms as a protective layer to keep the ear clean and free of infection, and is normally expelled from the ear by movement of the stapedial muscle.
Sometimes, however, earwax accumulates and becomes a difficult buildup to remove. In these cases, the primary care physician sometimes recommends the alternative use of hydrogen peroxide and glycerin to dislodge the buildup.
Using hydrogen peroxide and glycerin to dislodge earwax buildup should be done safely and independently.
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a client has been treated for dehydration and pneumonia. the nurse evaluates that the client has been successfully treated if the blood urea nitrogen (bun) level is which value?
Answers
Dehydration and pneumonia have both been addressed for a client. If the blood urea nitrogen level (bun) is 19 mg/dL, the nurse determines that the client has received a successful treatment.
The cardiac indicators with the highest specificity and ordering frequency are troponin (I or T). It becomes high (positive) after a few hours of cardiac injury and stays elevated for up to two weeks. The detection of a heart attack can be aided by rising troponin levels in a battery of tests carried out over several hours.
According to Dr. Eric De Jonge, director of Total Elder Care at Medstar Health, it's simple to become dehydrated when you have pneumonia because you're losing fluids when you sweat from the fever and you're losing fluid because your lungs are irritated.
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In the photograph below, which of the following indicate that the disease has progressed to periodontitis in the mandibular anterior teeth?
Clinical attachment loss/loss of alveolar bone
Answers
The following which indicates that the disease has progressed to periodontitis in the mandibular anterior teeth is the clinical attachment loss and loss of alveolar bone.
What is Periodontitis?
This is a medical condition which is also referred to as gum disease and it is a serious gum infection that damages the soft tissue which is present in the oral cavity of organisms as a result of various factors such as infection etc.
It is characterized by the loss of alveolar bone and it is used to depict that the disease has progressed to periodontitis in the mandibular anterior teeth of the organism.
This can be treated with the use of oral anitbiotics so as to kiol the bacteria and may cause tooth loss if it is left untreated therreby making it the crrect choice.
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you respond for an elderly femaile who has apparently taken the wrong medication. she tells you that she thought she took and
Answers
A senior woman who appears to have taken the incorrect prescription is likely experiencing presbyopia as a result.
What medical issue would you most likely detect in a patient who exhibits a steady deterioration in mental state but no signs of trauma?
Consider toxic or metabolic reasons, such as medication overdose, withdrawal symptoms, or the results of drug-drug interactions, if there are no evidence of trauma and no indications of infection.
What leads to elderly people's altered mental state?
Acute brain dysfunction symptoms like delirium, stupor, and coma are often the precursors to changes in mental status. These modifications take hours or days to materialize, and they are typically brought on by a potentially fatal underlying medical condition.
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question;-
You respond for an elderly female who has apparently taken the wrong medication. She tells you that she thought she took and aspirin for her headache, but instead she is feeling real tired. You check her medication and see that the aspirin looks like her sleeping pills. Which of the following likely lead to the problem?
A) Presbyopia
B) Presbycusis
C) Menopause
D) Proprioception
